Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
16.06.2025 03:37
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What’s something you did a lot as a kid that you don’t miss now that you’re an adult?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Are Indian youths conservative or liberal?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.